The finance law in question works like this: if you are a publicly funded candidate in an election, and one of your privately-funded opponents gets a hold of a large source of cash which he starts using in his campaign, be it his own stockpiles or a wealthy corporation, you get an amount of money equal to the amount by which his source of cash exceeds your public funding. In other words, publicly funded candidates have monetary parity with privately-funded candidates. It didn't do anything to prevent that privately funded candidate from blowing a bunch of cash on his campaign, it just removed his ability to massively outspend publicly funded ones.
Sounds like a good idea, right?
http://www.kansascity.com/2011/06/27/29 ... z1QW4JdlCx
Not according to 5/9 of the Supreme Court.
Sounds like a good idea, right?
http://www.kansascity.com/2011/06/27/29 ... z1QW4JdlCx
Not according to 5/9 of the Supreme Court.